After the initial murder (of King Duncan and his two grooms), Macbeth first turns to the witches' prophesy that Banquo's sons will be kings while he himself will wear "a fruitless crown." He's angry about this. After all, he's just committed regicide in order to become king. Why should Banquo's progeny benefit from hiscrime? Also, he suspects Banquo is onto him (and Banquo is, having noted that everything has worked out just as the...
After the initial murder (of King Duncan and his two grooms), Macbeth first turns to the witches' prophesy that Banquo's sons will be kings while he himself will wear "a fruitless crown." He's angry about this. After all, he's just committed regicide in order to become king. Why should Banquo's progeny benefit from his crime? Also, he suspects Banquo is onto him (and Banquo is, having noted that everything has worked out just as the witches predicted, but he fears that Macbeth has "played most foully for it"). He goes back to the witches for more advice, and they tell him to fear Macduff, so he decides to take care of this "threat," even though he's now convinced that nothing can kill him and he'll die as a king in his old age. Macduff suspects something is amiss, and flees to England, so Macbeth murders his wife and child in his absence; we are not told why he does this, but left to assume that it is to punish Macduff for fleeing and perhaps to frighten him into not returning. When the Battle at Dunsinane begins, he kills young Siward simply because this is the man who first accosts him in battle.
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